Post #22

So how’s everyone’s scores coming along on the AP tests…hopefully a little better than mine, but I can’t complain too much! Anywayyssss…

Let’s see what I remember shall we.. if you take the derivative of f^2(x) you treat it as if it was like sine. You do 2f(x) times f’(x) times 1. So it’s almost as if you have (f(x))^2 and you use the chain rule. Bring the 2 to the front, subtract 1, times by the derivative of the inside. And since the derivative of f(x) is f’(x) times the derivative of x, which is 1. These rules seem to help me A LOT!

Lets say you have:
x^2-2 DIVIDED BY 4-x^2 AS THE LIMIT APPROACHES 2
soo..
for this you end up getting two divided by zero. For finite limits though, if you get a number over zero, it’s always infinity. Therefore the answer is INFINITY!

Remember:
If the top exponent is greater than the bottom it’s the limit as it approaches infinity, and if the top exponent is less than the bottom it’s the limit as it approaches zero!
DON’T GET THEM CONFUSED LIKE I DID!
Here’s a trick:
Remember if you’re divided a number by another number and you have a bigger number on top it’s usually not zero. Also, if you’re dividing a number by another number and you have a smaller number on top it’s usually not a big number. Therefore, when the bigger number is on top since it’s a bigger number than zero it’s INFINITY and when the bigger number is on the bottom that means that it’s being lessened so it’s ZERO!

I guess we need to start studing for the next AP Exam huh!...[well I do anyways]
GOOD LUCK!

~ElliE~